How does one answer the Pre-Destination/Determinism found in the Presbyterian denomination of Christendom?

Ecclesiates 7:29 states:

This only have I found: God created mankind upright, but they have gone in search of many schemes.

If that is true, then Calvinism, Pre-Destination, and Determinism are not true.

Man is made with freedom of choice. Unfortunately, throughout history various versions of determinism have been taught. Even Jesus' disciples struggled with this concept, and we have a passage in John 9 that modern-day Calvinists believe "proves" their view of determinism.

Let's look at that passage...

What did Jesus actually say in John 9:3-4 ?
In looking at John 9:3-4, we find Jesus answering the question of whether the man was born blind because of his parents' sin or his own, reflecting the belief of that time that people suffered physical ailment due to punishment from God for sin or on the children of the sinners.

How we view Jesus' answer is all about our perception, and Calvin (along with other Pre-Destination and Determinism believers) viewed Jesus' answer as "God made this happen so that I could perform a miracle."

Why do they believe this is what Jesus said? Because they already believe in Pre-Destination and Determinism, thus that is exactly how they interpret it.

But is that what Jesus actually said?

Here is the original Greek without spacing and without punctuation as was written in the time of Jesus (actually the text also would have been all capital letters, but I did not find such example when searching for the original)--John 9:3-4:

   ἀπεκρίθηἸησοῦςΟὔτεοὗτοςἥμαρτενοὔτεοἱγονεῖςαὐτοῦἀλλ’ἵναφανερωθῇτὰἔργα
   τοῦΘεοῦἐναὐτῷἡμᾶςδεῖἐργάζεσθαιτὰἔργατοῦπέμψαντόςμεἕωςἡμέραἐστίν
   ἔρχεταινὺξὅτεοὐδεὶςδύναταιἐργάζεσθαι

Remember, spacing and punctuation did not exist until nearly the 6th century. Prior to that, there was no spacing and no punctuation. But as with all things, people of that time understood the written words of their time period and were accustomed to that style of scripted language.

Here is the word for word translation without scripting for modern flow of words:
   answeredJesusneitherthissinnednortheparentsofhimbutinorderthatshouldbedisplayed
   theworksofGodinhimusitbehoovestoworktheworksofthehavingsentmewhiledayitisis
   comingnightwhennooneisabletowork"

Now, let's add spacing without punctuation:
   answered Jesus neither this sinned nor the parents of him but in order that should
   be displayed the works of God in him us it behooves to work the works of the having
   sent me while day it is is coming night when no one is able to work

Now comes the punctuation. Look at the difference in these two types of punctuation:

                  A. As translated by almost all "scholars"                                            B. One minor change in man's added punctuation changes it all !!!

You see, these two versions have TWO TOTALLY DIFFERENT MEANINGS, and it is entirely based upon the punctuation added by man over 400 years after Jesus spoke these words, and influenced by man's views similar to the very disciples to whom Jesus spoke the words in the first place.

The way it is USUALLY translated by "scholars" who have a Calvinist point of view, Jesus is saying this was done by God to this man so that God, through Jesus, could do a miracle in front of the disciples. But if you look at the alternative punctuation, here is what I think you see.

MY INTERPRETATION: The disciples ask Jesus a question based on their view of punishment for sin, and Jesus shakes his head at this lack of understanding of the true nature of God. He says (perhaps with a bit of exasperation in his voice) "Are you kidding me? NO!!! It's not because he sinned or because his parents sinned!" Then Jesus pauses, and he sighs, and then looking upon the man in compassion, he finally says to his disciples, "Look guys, we should display the love of God in this man's life, because very soon I won't be here any longer to show God's love through my own hands."

In my Bible, I always physically change the punctuation with a black pen. Here is how my Holman version reads:

"Neither this man nor his parents sinned!" Jesus answered. "However, so that God's works might be displayed in him, we must do the works of Him who sent Me while it is day, because night is coming when no one can work."

You see, punctuation, added by men hundreds of years later, and influenced by an error in believing JUST AS THE DISCIPLES DID that God inflicted something on the man... has resulted in a confusion among Christians about "pre-destination".

What about Romans 9?
There is a key to understanding the entire statement Paul makes about pre-destination. It is in Romans 8:29 which states:

For those God foreknew he also predestined to be conformed to the image of his Son, that he might be the firstborn among many brothers and sisters.

The key word is FOREKNEW. Paul does not say "manipulated" or "created to be that way". As you read Romans 9, recognize that the Calvinist/Pre-Destination/Determinism error influences the translations. The reason Christians have so much difficulty with Romans 9 is because of the influence of the belief, just like Jesus' disciples, that God manipulates us and the future.

If we recognize that GOD FOREKNEW is the key element of understanding pre-destination, then it is God's very act of creating that put everything in motion. He FOREKNEW our every decision. He FOREKNEW therefore when He created He PREDESTINED. Romans 8:29 says that those He FOREKNEW He ALSO PREDESTINED.

First God FOREKNEW, thus when He created, He PREDESTINED. If that clarity is understood, then Romans 9 is not difficult to understand even with the influence of the error of Calvin in the translations.

Now, for the die-hard Calvinist, I have only this one answer:

God predestined me to think this way! (Because He foreknew it...)